Medical Officer & Lady Medical Officer Tests
Subject: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Test 1
Question No. 1
The branch of medicine dealing with diseases of the female reproductive system is called:
A. Obstetrics
B. Gynaecology
C. Pediatrics
D. Andrology
Question No. 2
The normal reproductive age in females generally extends from:
A. 10–30 years
B. Menarche to menopause
C. Birth to menopause
D. 20–60 years
Question No. 3
Which organ is the normal site of fertilization?
A. Uterus
B. Cervix
C. Ampulla of fallopian tube
D. Ovary
Question No. 4
The average length of a normal menstrual cycle is:
A. 14 days
B. 21 days
C. 28 days
D. 35 days
Question No. 5
The hormone primarily responsible for ovulation is:
A. FSH
B. LH
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Question No. 6
The first menstrual period is known as:
A. Menopause
B. Menorrhagia
C. Menarche
D. Dysmenorrhea
Question No. 7
Which ligament primarily supports the uterus?
A. Round ligament
B. Broad ligament
C. Cardinal ligament
D. Ovarian ligament
Question No. 8
The normal duration of pregnancy is approximately:
A. 34 weeks
B. 36 weeks
C. 40 weeks
D. 44 weeks
Question No. 9
The most common cause of vaginal discharge in reproductive-age women is:
A. Cervical cancer
B. Physiological discharge
C. Ovarian cyst
D. Endometriosis
Question No. 10
The most common organism causing vulvovaginal candidiasis is:
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Candida albicans
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Question No. 11
Pelvic inflammatory disease most commonly results from infection by:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Escherichia coli
Question No. 12
The permanent method of contraception in females is:
A. IUCD
B. Oral contraceptive pills
C. Tubal ligation
D. Condom
Question No. 13
The first investigation in suspected pregnancy is:
A. MRI pelvis
B. Urine pregnancy test
C. CT scan abdomen
D. Hysteroscopy
Question No. 14
The recommended supplement routinely prescribed during pregnancy is:
A. Vitamin C only
B. Iron and folic acid
C. Calcium only
D. Zinc only
Question No. 15
The fetal heart sounds are best heard after:
A. 6 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 18–20 weeks by fetoscope
D. 34 weeks
Question No. 16
The recommended tetanus immunization during pregnancy primarily prevents:
A. Maternal anemia
B. Neonatal tetanus
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Preeclampsia
Question No. 17
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin K
Question No. 18
The normal fetal presentation at term is:
A. Breech
B. Shoulder
C. Cephalic (Vertex)
D. Face
Question No. 19
The most common type of female pelvis is:
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynecoid
D. Platypelloid
Question No. 20
The first stage of labour ends with:
A. Delivery of placenta
B. Full cervical dilatation
C. Delivery of baby
D. Rupture of membranes
Moderate Level
Question No. 21
Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by progesterone dominance?
A. Follicular phase
B. Ovulatory phase
C. Luteal phase
D. Menstrual phase
Question No. 22
A woman presents with oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Premature ovarian failure
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome
D. Endometriosis
Question No. 23
The Rotterdam criteria are used for the diagnosis of:
A. Endometrial carcinoma
B. PCOS
C. Cervical cancer
D. PID
Question No. 24
The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide is:
A. Pregnancy
B. Hyperprolactinemia
C. PCOS
D. Thyroid disease
Question No. 25
The investigation considered the gold standard for evaluating tubal patency is:
A. Pelvic ultrasound
B. MRI pelvis
C. Laparoscopy with chromopertubation
D. CT pelvis
Question No. 26
The first-line imaging investigation for abnormal uterine bleeding is:
A. CT scan pelvis
B. MRI pelvis
C. Transvaginal ultrasonography
D. PET scan
Question No. 27
Hyperprolactinemia commonly presents with:
A. Menorrhagia and dysuria
B. Amenorrhea and galactorrhea
C. Dyspareunia and infertility only
D. Dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain
Question No. 28
The first-line medical treatment for hyperprolactinemia is:
A. Metformin
B. Bromocriptine
C. Clomiphene citrate
D. Progesterone
Question No. 29
The most common site of endometriosis is:
A. Cervix
B. Ovary
C. Vagina
D. Vulva
Question No. 30
The investigation of choice for cervical cancer screening in average-risk women is:
A. CT scan pelvis
B. Pap smear
C. CA-125
D. Hysteroscopy
Question No. 31
Persistent infection with which HPV types carries the highest risk for cervical cancer?
A. HPV 6 and 11
B. HPV 16 and 18
C. HPV 31 and 33 only
D. HPV 42 and 44
Question No. 32
The most common symptom of endometrial carcinoma is:
A. Pelvic pain
B. Postmenopausal bleeding
C. Vaginal discharge only
D. Dyspareunia
Question No. 33
The tumor marker most commonly associated with epithelial ovarian cancer is:
A. AFP
B. β-hCG
C. CA-125
D. CEA
Question No. 34
Hydatidiform mole is characterized by:
A. Fetal cardiac activity in all cases
B. Abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue
C. Endometrial hyperplasia only
D. Cervical dysplasia
Question No. 35
The preferred follow-up after evacuation of a complete molar pregnancy includes serial measurement of:
A. Serum progesterone
B. Serum estrogen
C. Serum β-hCG
D. Serum LH
Question No. 36
The most common indication for dilatation and curettage (D&C) is:
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Evaluation of abnormal uterine bleeding
C. Cervical incompetence
D. Placenta previa
Question No. 37
Hysteroscopy is primarily used to evaluate:
A. Ovarian pathology
B. Uterine cavity pathology
C. Fallopian tube patency only
D. Vulvar lesions
Question No. 38
Compared with open surgery, laparoscopic gynecological surgery is associated with:
A. Longer hospital stay
B. Increased postoperative pain
C. Faster recovery and less blood loss
D. Higher wound infection rate
Question No. 39
The definitive treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids in women who have completed childbearing is:
A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. Myomectomy
C. Hysterectomy
D. GnRH agonists only
Question No. 40
Which contraceptive method provides protection against sexually transmitted infections?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Copper IUCD
C. Male condom
D. Injectable progesterone
Moderately Difficult
Question No. 41
The emergency contraceptive pill is most effective when taken within:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 72 hours after unprotected intercourse
D. 10 days
Question No. 42
Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by Treponema pallidum?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia
D. Genital herpes
Question No. 43
According to WHO recommendations, the first antenatal booking visit should ideally occur:
A. Before 12 weeks of gestation
B. At 20 weeks
C. At 28 weeks
D. At 36 weeks
Question No. 44
The symphysis-fundal height measured in centimeters approximately corresponds to gestational age after:
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 28 weeks
D. 36 weeks
Question No. 45
The oral glucose tolerance test for gestational diabetes is usually performed between:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 12–16 weeks
C. 24–28 weeks
D. 36–38 weeks
Question No. 46
The most common cause of maternal mortality worldwide is:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Postpartum hemorrhage
C. Thyroid disease
D. Appendicitis
Question No. 47
The most common hypertensive disorder of pregnancy is:
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
Question No. 48
A pregnant woman who is Rh-negative should receive Anti-D immunoglobulin to prevent:
A. Placenta previa
B. Rh isoimmunization
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Preterm labor
Question No. 49
The most common location of an ectopic pregnancy is:
A. Cervix
B. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
C. Ovary
D. Abdomen
Question No. 50
A woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Cervical carcinoma
Question No. 51
A pregnant woman at 36 weeks presents with painful vaginal bleeding, abdominal tenderness, and a rigid uterus. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Vasa previa
D. Cervical polyp
Question No. 52
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) is defined as rupture of membranes:
A. Before 20 weeks of gestation
B. Before the onset of labour
C. During the second stage of labour
D. After delivery of the fetus
Question No. 53
The most common cause of first-trimester vaginal bleeding is:
A. Placenta previa
B. Miscarriage (Spontaneous abortion)
C. Placental abruption
D. Uterine rupture
Question No. 54
The most common type of miscarriage is:
A. Missed miscarriage
B. Threatened miscarriage
C. Complete miscarriage
D. Septic miscarriage
Question No. 55
A woman with severe preeclampsia develops generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The diagnosis is:
A. Epilepsy
B. Eclampsia
C. Cerebral malaria
D. Stroke
Question No. 56
The drug of choice for prevention and treatment of eclamptic seizures is:
A. Diazepam
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Phenytoin
D. Midazolam
Question No. 57
The investigation considered the gold standard for diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus is:
A. Random blood glucose
B. Fasting blood sugar only
C. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
D. HbA1c alone
Question No. 58
Which fetal surveillance method evaluates fetal heart rate in relation to uterine contractions?
A. Biophysical profile
B. Cardiotocography (CTG)
C. Doppler ultrasound
D. Amniocentesis
Question No. 59
Reduced amniotic fluid volume is termed:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Hydrops fetalis
D. Hydramnios
Question No. 60
The most common cause of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is:
A. Gestational trophoblastic disease
B. Placental insufficiency
C. Twin pregnancy
D. Polyhydramnios
Difficult Level
Question No. 61
The most common cause of anemia during pregnancy is:
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
Question No. 62
A pregnant woman with severe anemia is at increased risk of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Heart failure
B. Preterm labour
C. Postpartum hemorrhage
D. Polycythemia
Question No. 63
The physiological cardiovascular adaptation during pregnancy includes:
A. Decreased cardiac output
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Increased systemic vascular resistance
D. Bradycardia
Question No. 64
The most common physiological respiratory change during pregnancy is:
A. Reduced tidal volume
B. Increased tidal volume
C. Reduced minute ventilation
D. Respiratory acidosis
Question No. 65
Leopold’s first maneuver is performed to determine:
A. Engagement of fetal head
B. Presenting part occupying the fundus
C. Fetal heart rate
D. Cervical dilatation
Question No. 66
The normal fetal heart rate ranges between:
A. 80–100 beats/minute
B. 100–120 beats/minute
C. 110–160 beats/minute
D. 170–200 beats/minute
Question No. 67
The partograph is primarily used to:
A. Diagnose congenital anomalies
B. Monitor the progress of labour
C. Assess placental maturity
D. Detect gestational diabetes
Question No. 68
The diamond-shaped fontanelle is known as the:
A. Posterior fontanelle
B. Anterior fontanelle
C. Mastoid fontanelle
D. Sphenoidal fontanelle
Question No. 69
The smallest anteroposterior diameter of the well-flexed fetal head is:
A. Occipitofrontal diameter
B. Biparietal diameter
C. Suboccipitobregmatic diameter
D. Mentovertical diameter
Question No. 70
The gynecoid pelvis is considered most favorable for:
A. Forceps delivery only
B. Cesarean section
C. Normal vaginal delivery
D. Breech extraction
Question No. 71
The mechanism of labour begins with:
A. Internal rotation
B. Flexion
C. Engagement
D. Extension
Question No. 72
The active phase of the first stage of labour begins approximately at cervical dilatation of:
A. 2 cm
B. 4 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 9 cm
Question No. 73
The drug routinely administered as part of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labour (AMTSL) is:
A. Misoprostol only
B. Oxytocin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Methylergometrine in every patient
Question No. 74
Which of the following is the most common indication for cesarean section worldwide?
A. Uterine rupture
B. Previous cesarean section
C. Breech presentation only
D. Cord prolapse
Question No. 75
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is:
A. Retained placenta
B. Uterine atony
C. Cervical laceration
D. Coagulation disorders
Question No. 76
A primigravida develops profuse bleeding immediately after delivery. The uterus is soft, enlarged, and poorly contracted. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Cervical tear
B. Retained placenta
C. Uterine atony
D. Uterine inversion
Question No. 77
The first-line management of uterine atony after delivery includes:
A. Immediate hysterectomy
B. Uterine massage with administration of oxytocin
C. Forceps delivery
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy
Question No. 78
A woman develops fever, foul-smelling lochia, and uterine tenderness three days after delivery. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Endometritis (Puerperal sepsis)
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cystitis
D. Mastitis
Question No. 79
The first milk secreted after childbirth, rich in immunoglobulin A (IgA), is called:
A. Mature milk
B. Transitional milk
C. Colostrum
D. Hindmilk
Question No. 80
According to neonatal resuscitation guidelines, the initial step immediately after birth is:
A. Chest compressions
B. Drying, warming, and assessment of breathing
C. Endotracheal intubation
D. Administration of adrenaline
Complex Clinical Scenario-Based Questions
Question No. 81
A 24-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks presents with blood pressure of 170/115 mmHg, severe headache, blurred vision, and proteinuria (+++). The most appropriate immediate management is:
A. Discharge with oral iron therapy
B. Admit, stabilize with magnesium sulfate and antihypertensives, then assess for delivery
C. Repeat blood pressure after one month
D. Give antibiotics and discharge
Question No. 82
A 27-year-old woman presents with severe lower abdominal pain, six weeks of amenorrhea, and signs of hypovolemic shock. Urine pregnancy test is positive. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Threatened miscarriage
B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Acute PID
Question No. 83
A woman has persistent vaginal bleeding after evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole. Serum β-hCG remains elevated for several weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Missed miscarriage
B. Persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
C. Cervical ectropion
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
Question No. 84
A multiparous woman at 39 weeks has sudden severe abdominal pain during labour followed by cessation of uterine contractions, fetal distress, and maternal hypotension. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Placenta previa
B. Uterine rupture
C. Cord prolapse
D. Obstructed labour only
Question No. 85
A 29-year-old woman complains of infertility, dysmenorrhea, and deep dyspareunia. Ultrasound reveals an ovarian endometrioma. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Adenomyosis
B. Endometriosis
C. Ovarian carcinoma
D. PID
Question No. 86
A 45-year-old obese woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding. Endometrial biopsy reveals endometrial hyperplasia with atypia. The most appropriate management is:
A. Observation only
B. Hysterectomy after appropriate evaluation
C. Oral antibiotics
D. Copper IUCD insertion
Question No. 87
A woman at 38 weeks has fetal heart rate decelerations on cardiotocography with reduced baseline variability. The CTG is best interpreted as:
A. Reassuring fetal status
B. Suspicious/pathological fetal distress requiring urgent evaluation
C. Normal labour pattern
D. Maternal tachycardia
Question No. 88
A patient develops continuous leakage of urine through the vagina two weeks after prolonged obstructed labour. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Stress urinary incontinence
B. Vesicovaginal fistula
C. Overactive bladder
D. Urethral diverticulum
Question No. 89
A woman with stage III pelvic organ prolapse complains of a protruding vaginal mass. Definitive treatment in a woman who has completed childbearing is:
A. Oral estrogen alone
B. Pelvic floor exercises only
C. Appropriate pelvic reconstructive surgery or vaginal hysterectomy based on evaluation
D. Observation indefinitely
Question No. 90
A woman presents with persistent postcoital bleeding. Speculum examination shows a friable cervical growth. The next best step is:
A. Start antibiotics only
B. Perform cervical biopsy
C. Repeat examination after one year
D. Prescribe oral contraceptive pills
Question No. 91
A pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes develops reduced fetal movements at 35 weeks. The most appropriate initial fetal assessment is:
A. Chest X-ray
B. Cardiotocography with ultrasound-based fetal assessment
C. Colonoscopy
D. Intravenous antibiotics only
Question No. 92
During vaginal examination, the anterior fontanelle is easily palpable with poor flexion of the fetal head. This suggests:
A. Well-flexed vertex presentation
B. Deflexed head presentation
C. Face presentation with full extension only
D. Shoulder presentation
Question No. 93
A 30-year-old woman with infertility has bilateral tubal blockage confirmed on laparoscopy. The most suitable fertility option is:
A. Expectant management only
B. In vitro fertilization (IVF)
C. Copper IUCD insertion
D. Endometrial ablation
Question No. 94
A patient presents with postpartum hemorrhage that persists despite uterine massage and oxytocin. The next appropriate step includes:
A. Escalation to additional uterotonics and stepwise management of PPH, including surgical intervention if required
B. Discharge home
C. Stop all medications
D. Repeat pregnancy test
Question No. 95
A 26-year-old woman has amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and markedly elevated serum prolactin. MRI reveals a pituitary microadenoma. First-line treatment is:
A. Bromocriptine or cabergoline therapy
B. Immediate hysterectomy
C. Bilateral oophorectomy
D. Pelvic radiotherapy
Question No. 96
A pregnant woman develops generalized tonic-clonic seizures despite no previous history of epilepsy and has severe hypertension with proteinuria. The priority is:
A. Magnesium sulfate, maternal stabilization, and timely delivery
B. Oral antibiotics only
C. Insulin infusion only
D. Observation at home
Question No. 97
A newborn fails to cry immediately after birth but has a heart rate of 120 beats/minute. The next step is:
A. Immediate chest compressions
B. Positive-pressure ventilation without assessment
C. Clear airway if needed, dry, stimulate, and reassess breathing
D. Intravenous adrenaline
Question No. 98
A woman with previous one lower-segment cesarean section presents in spontaneous labour at term with no contraindications to vaginal birth. According to current obstetric practice, she may be offered:
A. Elective hysterectomy
B. Trial of labour after cesarean (TOLAC) in an appropriately equipped facility
C. Forceps delivery before labour begins
D. Induction at home
Question No. 99
A woman with persistent HPV-16 infection has a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) on cytology. The most appropriate next step is:
A. Ignore the result
B. Colposcopic evaluation with directed biopsy
C. Repeat Pap smear after 10 years
D. Oral antifungal therapy
Question No. 100
Which of the following interventions has contributed most significantly to reducing maternal mortality in low- and middle-income countries?
A. Routine CT scan in pregnancy
B. Skilled birth attendance with timely Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (EmONC)
C. Universal elective cesarean section
D. Routine MRI during labour