Medical Officer & Lady Medical Officer Tests
Subject: Otolaryngology (ENT)
TEST 1
Question No. 1
The branch of medicine dealing with diseases of the ear, nose, and throat is called:
A. Ophthalmology
B. Otolaryngology
C. Neurology
D. Dermatology
Question No. 2
Which bone contains the cochlea?
A. Frontal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Occipital bone
D. Sphenoid bone
Question No. 3
The normal adult tympanic membrane appears:
A. Bright red
B. Pearly gray
C. Yellow
D. Black
Question No. 4
Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing?
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Vestibulocochlear nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Question No. 5
The organ responsible for maintaining balance is the:
A. Cochlea
B. Eustachian tube
C. Semicircular canals
D. Tympanic membrane
Question No. 6
The most commonly used instrument to examine the ear is the:
A. Laryngoscope
B. Otoscope
C. Rhinoscope
D. Bronchoscope
Question No. 7
Which structure connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?
A. External auditory canal
B. Cochlear duct
C. Eustachian tube
D. Vestibule
Question No. 8
The normal hearing range in humans is approximately:
A. 2–200 Hz
B. 20–20,000 Hz
C. 500–5,000 Hz
D. 50–50,000 Hz
Question No. 9
The sense of smell is known as:
A. Gustation
B. Phonation
C. Olfaction
D. Audition
Question No. 10
Which instrument is commonly used for indirect examination of the larynx?
A. Otoscope
B. Tongue depressor
C. Laryngeal mirror
D. Nasal speculum
Question No. 11
The nasal septum primarily divides the:
A. Oral cavity
B. Nasal cavity
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx
Question No. 12
The largest salivary gland is the:
A. Sublingual gland
B. Minor salivary gland
C. Parotid gland
D. Submandibular gland
Question No. 13
Which sinus is most commonly affected in sinusitis?
A. Frontal sinus
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus
Question No. 14
The medical term for nose bleeding is:
A. Rhinorrhea
B. Epistaxis
C. Otorrhea
D. Dysphagia
Question No. 15
Which structure houses the vocal cords?
A. Pharynx
B. Larynx
C. Trachea
D. Esophagus
Question No. 16
Difficulty in swallowing is called:
A. Dysphonia
B. Dysarthria
C. Dysphagia
D. Dyspnea
Question No. 17
The first-line investigation for hearing assessment is usually:
A. CT Scan
B. MRI
C. Pure Tone Audiometry
D. ECG
Question No. 18
Which symptom is most suggestive of vestibular dysfunction?
A. Tinnitus
B. Vertigo
C. Rhinorrhea
D. Hoarseness
Question No. 19
A foreign body in the airway is considered:
A. Cosmetic problem
B. Medical emergency
C. Chronic disease
D. Psychiatric illness
Question No. 20
The examination of the nasal cavity using an endoscope is called:
A. Otoscopy
B. Rhinoscopy
C. Laryngoscopy
D. Bronchoscopy
Questions 21–40 (Moderate Level)
Question No. 21
Rinne’s test primarily compares:
A. Air conduction and bone conduction
B. Right and left ear hearing
C. High- and low-frequency hearing
D. Vestibular function
Question No. 22
Weber’s test is performed using a:
A. Stethoscope
B. Reflex hammer
C. Tuning fork
D. Otoscope
Question No. 23
The most commonly used tuning fork for hearing assessment is:
A. 128 Hz
B. 256 Hz
C. 512 Hz
D. 1024 Hz
Question No. 24
The pharynx is anatomically divided into:
A. Two parts
B. Three parts
C. Four parts
D. Five parts
Question No. 25
The cribriform plate is part of the:
A. Maxilla
B. Ethmoid bone
C. Mandible
D. Temporal bone
Question No. 26
Which sinus drains into the middle meatus?
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Sphenoid sinus
C. Posterior ethmoid sinus
D. None
Question No. 27
The tympanic membrane normally has how many quadrants?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six
Question No. 28
The facial nerve exits the skull through the:
A. Foramen ovale
B. Jugular foramen
C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Optic canal
Question No. 29
The normal adult Eustachian tube is approximately:
A. 10 mm
B. 18 mm
C. 36 mm
D. 60 mm
Question No. 30
The vallecula is situated between the:
A. Tongue and epiglottis
B. Vocal cords
C. Trachea and bronchi
D. Nose and nasopharynx
Question No. 31
The examination of vocal cord mobility is best performed using:
A. Otoscopy
B. Indirect laryngoscopy
C. Pure tone audiometry
D. Tympanometry
Question No. 32
The normal whisper test is performed from approximately:
A. 1 meter
B. 2 meters
C. 6 meters
D. 10 meters
Question No. 33
The Eustachian tube opens during:
A. Sleeping
B. Swallowing
C. Sitting
D. Breathing
Question No. 34
The primary function of the nasal turbinates is:
A. Speech production
B. Warming and humidifying inspired air
C. Taste sensation
D. Swallowing
Question No. 35
The ossicles include all except:
A. Malleus
B. Incus
C. Stapes
D. Cochlea
Question No. 36
Which examination is essential in every patient presenting with hoarseness?
A. Audiometry
B. Laryngoscopy
C. Tympanometry
D. CT Abdomen
Question No. 37
The most common cause of acute sore throat is:
A. Viral infection
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. Carcinoma
Question No. 38
Which cranial nerve supplies taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue?
A. Facial nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
Question No. 39
The normal external auditory canal is approximately:
A. 1 cm long
B. 2.5 cm long
C. 5 cm long
D. 7 cm long
Question No. 40
Flexible nasopharyngoscopy is particularly useful for evaluating the:
A. Cochlea
B. Nasopharynx
C. Mastoid air cells
D. Middle ear
Question No. 41
A patient has a positive Rinne test bilaterally and Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Left conductive hearing loss
B. Right conductive hearing loss
C. Right sensorineural hearing loss
D. Left mixed hearing loss
Question No. 42
The most common bacterial cause of acute otitis media is:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Proteus mirabilis
Question No. 43
The sensory innervation of the tympanic membrane is primarily supplied by all except:
A. Auriculotemporal nerve
B. Auricular branch of the vagus nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
Question No. 44
The examination of choice for evaluating middle ear pressure is:
A. Pure tone audiometry
B. Tympanometry
C. CT Scan
D. MRI
Question No. 45
Which sinus is most closely related to the orbit and therefore commonly associated with orbital complications?
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Ethmoid sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus
Question No. 46
The main function of the Eustachian tube is:
A. Sound perception
B. Pressure equalization of the middle ear
C. Balance maintenance
D. Olfaction
Question No. 47
The most common organism responsible for otitis externa is:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Haemophilus influenzae
Question No. 48
The most common site of origin of epistaxis is:
A. Woodruff’s plexus
B. Kiesselbach’s plexus
C. Sphenopalatine artery
D. Facial artery
Question No. 49
Which of the following is NOT a component of Waldeyer’s ring?
A. Palatine tonsils
B. Lingual tonsils
C. Pharyngeal tonsil
D. Thyroid gland
Question No. 50
The facial nerve traverses which part of the temporal bone?
A. Mastoid air cells only
B. Facial canal
C. Cochlear duct
D. Vestibular aqueduct
Question No. 51
The gold standard investigation for suspected vestibular schwannoma is:
A. Skull X-ray
B. Contrast-enhanced MRI
C. Tympanometry
D. Ultrasound
Question No. 52
Which structure forms the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?
A. Nasal septum
B. Turbinates (Conchae)
C. Hard palate
D. Soft palate
Question No. 53
The first investigation in a patient presenting with persistent unilateral nasal obstruction is:
A. Nasal endoscopy
B. Chest X-ray
C. ECG
D. Echocardiography
Question No. 54
The principal arterial supply of the nasal cavity arises from the:
A. Internal carotid artery only
B. External carotid artery only
C. Both internal and external carotid arteries
D. Vertebral artery
Question No. 55
The glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the:
A. External ear only
B. Oropharynx and posterior one-third of the tongue
C. Nasal cavity only
D. Vocal cords only
Question No. 56
Which investigation best assesses conductive hearing loss?
A. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)
B. Pure Tone Audiometry
C. CT Abdomen
D. PET Scan
Question No. 57
The commonest indication for diagnostic nasal endoscopy is:
A. Epistaxis evaluation
B. Chronic nasal obstruction and sinus disease
C. Thyroid swelling
D. Hearing impairment
Question No. 58
Which of the following is considered an ENT emergency?
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Impacted cerumen
C. Acute airway obstruction due to foreign body
D. Deviated nasal septum
Question No. 59
The vocal cords are lined predominantly by:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Cuboidal epithelium
Question No. 60
The most appropriate initial imaging modality for evaluating a neck abscess is:
A. Plain X-ray
B. Contrast-enhanced CT scan
C. MRI Brain
D. Intravenous urography
Questions 61–80 (Difficult Level)
Question No. 61
A 40-year-old man presents with progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and imbalance. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Otosclerosis
B. Vestibular schwannoma
C. Acute otitis media
D. Cholesteatoma
Question No. 62
A patient with CSOM develops postauricular swelling, fever, and protrusion of the auricle. The most likely complication is:
A. Otosclerosis
B. Mastoiditis
C. Bell’s palsy
D. Otomycosis
Question No. 63
The characteristic histopathological feature of allergic rhinitis is:
A. Neutrophilic infiltration
B. Eosinophilic infiltration
C. Caseating granulomas
D. Squamous metaplasia
Question No. 64
Which nerve is most at risk during parotid gland surgery?
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Accessory nerve
Question No. 65
The most common benign tumor of the parotid gland is:
A. Warthin tumor
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Question No. 66
A patient develops severe sore throat, muffled (“hot potato”) voice, trismus, and uvular deviation. The diagnosis is:
A. Acute epiglottitis
B. Peritonsillar abscess
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Oral candidiasis
Question No. 67
The most common site of origin of laryngeal carcinoma is:
A. Supraglottis
B. Glottis
C. Subglottis
D. Epiglottis
Question No. 68
The investigation of choice for staging head and neck malignancies is:
A. Ultrasound only
B. Contrast-enhanced CT scan
C. ECG
D. Audiometry
Question No. 69
A child presents with unilateral foul-smelling nasal discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Acute sinusitis
C. Nasal foreign body
D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Question No. 70
The most common organism causing malignant otitis externa is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Candida albicans
D. Moraxella catarrhalis
Question No. 71
The commonest congenital neck cyst is:
A. Branchial cyst
B. Thyroglossal duct cyst
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Sebaceous cyst
Question No. 72
Which investigation best confirms vocal cord paralysis?
A. Tympanometry
B. Flexible laryngoscopy
C. Audiometry
D. Rhinoscopy
Question No. 73
A patient presents with inspiratory stridor and severe respiratory distress. The immediate priority is:
A. Antibiotics only
B. Secure the airway
C. Perform audiometry
D. CT scan of neck
Question No. 74
The most common site of carcinoma of the oral cavity is:
A. Hard palate
B. Tongue (lateral border)
C. Soft palate
D. Gingiva
Question No. 75
Bell’s palsy primarily affects which cranial nerve?
A. V
B. VII
C. IX
D. X
Question No. 76
The most common symptom of Meniere’s disease is:
A. Sudden anosmia
B. Episodic vertigo with hearing loss
C. Persistent epistaxis
D. Dysphagia
Question No. 77
A cholesteatoma is best described as:
A. Malignant tumor of the middle ear
B. Keratinizing squamous epithelium within the middle ear
C. Benign vascular tumor
D. Fungal infection
Question No. 78
The most common complication of untreated acute bacterial sinusitis is:
A. Orbital cellulitis
B. Cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Otosclerosis
Question No. 79
The preferred emergency treatment for severe posterior epistaxis not controlled by anterior packing is:
A. Observation only
B. Posterior nasal packing or endoscopic arterial ligation
C. Oral antihistamines
D. Steam inhalation
Question No. 80
The most common indication for tracheostomy in adults is:
A. Cosmetic reasons
B. Prolonged mechanical ventilation or upper airway obstruction
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Otitis externa
Question No. 81
A 6-year-old child presents with fever, severe ear pain, and a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Otitis externa
B. Acute otitis media
C. Otomycosis
D. Cholesteatoma
Question No. 82
A 58-year-old smoker presents with progressive hoarseness for three months without pain. Flexible laryngoscopy reveals an irregular lesion on the true vocal cord. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Vocal cord nodule
B. Laryngeal carcinoma
C. Acute laryngitis
D. Vocal cord polyp
Question No. 83
A patient with sudden unilateral sensorineural hearing loss presents within 24 hours of symptom onset. The most appropriate initial management is:
A. Oral antihistamines
B. High-dose corticosteroids
C. Nasal decongestants
D. Oral antibiotics
Question No. 84
A diabetic elderly patient develops severe otalgia, purulent otorrhea, granulation tissue in the external auditory canal, and cranial nerve palsy. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute otitis media
B. Malignant (necrotizing) otitis externa
C. CSOM
D. Otosclerosis
Question No. 85
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo lasting several hours, fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness. The diagnosis is:
A. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
B. Vestibular neuritis
C. Meniere’s disease
D. Acoustic trauma
Question No. 86
A young adult has persistent unilateral nasal obstruction, recurrent epistaxis, and CT scan shows a vascular nasopharyngeal mass. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Nasal polyp
B. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
C. Deviated nasal septum
D. Allergic rhinitis
Question No. 87
A patient develops complete facial weakness involving both the forehead and lower face after exposure to cold. No other neurological deficits are present. The diagnosis is:
A. Stroke
B. Bell’s palsy
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Multiple sclerosis
Question No. 88
A patient with progressive dysphagia, weight loss, neck lymphadenopathy, and history of tobacco use most likely has:
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B. Oropharyngeal malignancy
C. Tonsillitis
D. Oral candidiasis
Question No. 89
A child suddenly develops coughing, stridor, and respiratory distress while eating peanuts. The immediate management is:
A. Oral antibiotics
B. Heimlich maneuver (age appropriate) and urgent airway management
C. Steam inhalation
D. Nebulized saline only
Question No. 90
Which investigation is most appropriate for evaluating suspected cholesteatoma before surgery?
A. Plain skull X-ray
B. High-resolution CT scan of the temporal bone
C. Ultrasound of the ear
D. Tympanometry only
Question No. 91
A patient has a painless thyroid nodule associated with cervical lymphadenopathy and vocal cord paralysis. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Benign thyroid cyst
B. Papillary thyroid carcinoma with local invasion
C. Multinodular goiter
D. Hashimoto thyroiditis
Question No. 92
Following total thyroidectomy, a patient develops inspiratory stridor immediately after extubation. The most likely cause is:
A. Acute sinusitis
B. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
C. Facial nerve injury
D. Otitis media
Question No. 93
A patient with recurrent oral ulcers, tobacco chewing, and a persistent white patch that cannot be scraped off most likely has:
A. Oral candidiasis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. Herpes simplex infection
Question No. 94
A patient presents with painless enlargement of the parotid gland. Fine-needle aspiration suggests pleomorphic adenoma. The preferred treatment is:
A. Antibiotics only
B. Superficial parotidectomy with facial nerve preservation
C. Incision and drainage
D. Radiotherapy alone
Question No. 95
A patient develops persistent cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea after facial trauma. The next best investigation is:
A. Pure tone audiometry
B. High-resolution CT scan of the skull base
C. Chest X-ray
D. Tympanometry
Question No. 96
A child has recurrent episodes of acute otitis media despite appropriate antibiotic therapy and persistent middle ear effusion. The most appropriate management is:
A. Observation for five years
B. Myringotomy with grommet insertion
C. Mastoidectomy immediately
D. Cochlear implantation
Question No. 97
A patient with deep neck space infection develops drooling, trismus, fever, and rapidly progressive airway compromise. The immediate priority is:
A. Oral analgesics
B. Secure the airway followed by intravenous antibiotics and surgical drainage if indicated
C. MRI Brain
D. Outpatient follow-up
Question No. 98
A chronic smoker presents with persistent unilateral ear pain but otoscopic examination is normal. This finding should raise suspicion of:
A. Otomycosis
B. Referred otalgia due to head and neck carcinoma
C. Acute otitis externa
D. Cerumen impaction
Question No. 99
A patient undergoing Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS) is at greatest risk of injury to which adjacent structure?
A. Mandible
B. Orbit and skull base
C. Cervical spine
D. Hyoid bone
Question No. 100
A patient presents with progressive hoarseness, dysphagia, cervical lymph node enlargement, and CT evidence of transglottic extension of a laryngeal mass. The most appropriate management is:
A. Oral antibiotics and observation
B. Voice therapy alone
C. Multidisciplinary management including surgery with or without chemoradiotherapy depending on staging
D. Nasal packing