Medical Officer & Lady Medical Officer Tests
Subject: Ophthalmology
Test 1
Question No. 1
The branch of medicine dealing with diseases of the eye is:
A. Otolaryngology
B. Ophthalmology
C. Neurology
D. Dermatology
Question No. 2
The transparent anterior part of the fibrous coat of the eye is:
A. Sclera
B. Choroid
C. Cornea
D. Retina
Question No. 3
The normal adult visual acuity on a Snellen chart is:
A. 6/60
B. 6/36
C. 6/18
D. 6/6
Question No. 4
The colored part of the eye is the:
A. Lens
B. Iris
C. Retina
D. Cornea
Question No. 5
The central opening in the iris is called the:
A. Canal of Schlemm
B. Fovea
C. Pupil
D. Optic disc
Question No. 6
Visual acuity is primarily assessed using:
A. Ishihara chart
B. Snellen chart
C. Jaeger chart
D. Hess chart
Question No. 7
The optic nerve is the:
A. First cranial nerve
B. Second cranial nerve
C. Third cranial nerve
D. Fourth cranial nerve
Question No. 8
The photoreceptors responsible for color vision are:
A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Bipolar cells
D. Ganglion cells
Question No. 9
Which structure provides most of the refractive power of the eye?
A. Iris
B. Lens
C. Cornea
D. Retina
Question No. 10
Blindness due to vitamin A deficiency primarily affects the:
A. Lens
B. Retina
C. Cornea
D. Iris
Question No. 11
Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the:
A. Cornea
B. Conjunctiva
C. Retina
D. Choroid
Question No. 12
The most common cause of reversible blindness worldwide is:
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Retinal detachment
D. AMD
Question No. 13
The normal pupil reacts to:
A. Sound only
B. Pain only
C. Light
D. Smell
Question No. 14
The transparent biconvex structure behind the iris is the:
A. Retina
B. Lens
C. Cornea
D. Sclera
Question No. 15
The posterior chamber of the eye contains:
A. Vitreous humor
B. Aqueous humor
C. Blood
D. Lymph
Question No. 16
Which cranial nerve supplies the lateral rectus muscle?
A. III
B. IV
C. V
D. VI
Question No. 17
The most common bacterial cause of acute conjunctivitis is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Clostridium tetani
Question No. 18
Dry eye syndrome commonly results from:
A. Increased tear production
B. Tear film deficiency
C. Retinal degeneration
D. Lens opacity
Question No. 19
Which refractive error causes distant objects to appear blurred?
A. Hypermetropia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Astigmatism
Question No. 20
The WHO emphasizes prevention of avoidable blindness through:
A. Radiation therapy
B. Community eye care
C. Chemotherapy
D. Organ transplantation
Moderate Level
Question No. 21
Hypermetropia is corrected with:
A. Concave lens
B. Convex lens
C. Cylindrical lens
D. Prism
Question No. 22
Astigmatism is primarily due to:
A. Irregular corneal curvature
B. Retinal degeneration
C. Iris atrophy
D. Optic neuritis
Question No. 23
The commonest cause of allergic conjunctivitis is:
A. Viral infection
B. Hypersensitivity reaction
C. Trauma
D. Vitamin deficiency
Question No. 24
The instrument used to measure intraocular pressure is:
A. Retinoscope
B. Tonometer
C. Keratometer
D. Gonioscope
Question No. 25
The direct ophthalmoscope is mainly used to examine the:
A. Eyelids
B. Cornea
C. Fundus of the eye
D. Lacrimal gland
Question No. 26
Presbyopia occurs primarily due to:
A. Increased intraocular pressure
B. Loss of lens elasticity with age
C. Corneal edema
D. Retinal degeneration
Question No. 27
The most common symptom of cataract is:
A. Sudden severe eye pain
B. Progressive painless loss of vision
C. Diplopia with headache
D. Redness with purulent discharge
Question No. 28
Which type of glaucoma is usually asymptomatic in the early stages?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Secondary glaucoma
C. Primary open-angle glaucoma
D. Congenital glaucoma
Question No. 29
The characteristic visual field defect in glaucoma is:
A. Central scotoma only
B. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. Peripheral visual field loss
D. Homonymous hemianopia
Question No. 30
A painful red eye with photophobia and a constricted pupil is suggestive of:
A. Cataract
B. Uveitis
C. Retinal detachment
D. Dry eye syndrome
Question No. 31
The earliest ophthalmoscopic finding in diabetic retinopathy is:
A. Cotton wool spots
B. Hard exudates
C. Microaneurysms
D. Neovascularization
Question No. 32
Hypertensive retinopathy commonly shows:
A. Corneal opacity
B. Arteriovenous nicking
C. Lens dislocation
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Question No. 33
Age-related macular degeneration primarily affects the:
A. Peripheral retina
B. Macula
C. Optic nerve
D. Lens
Question No. 34
The classic symptom of retinal detachment is:
A. White pupillary reflex only
B. Floaters and flashes followed by a curtain over vision
C. Gradual central vision loss over years
D. Painful red eye
Question No. 35
Amblyopia is best described as:
A. Congenital cataract
B. Functional reduction in vision without structural abnormality
C. Inflammation of the retina
D. Optic nerve degeneration
Question No. 36
The gold standard instrument for anterior segment examination is:
A. Fundus camera
B. Slit lamp biomicroscope
C. OCT
D. Direct ophthalmoscope
Question No. 37
Indirect ophthalmoscopy provides:
A. High magnification with a narrow field only
B. Wide-field stereoscopic view of the retina
C. Measurement of intraocular pressure
D. Corneal topography
Question No. 38
Goldmann applanation tonometry measures:
A. Corneal thickness
B. Tear production
C. Intraocular pressure
D. Lens power
Question No. 39
Retinoscopy is mainly performed to determine:
A. Color vision
B. Refractive error
C. Intraocular pressure
D. Corneal sensation
Question No. 40
Automated perimetry is used to assess:
A. Pupillary reflex
B. Color blindness
C. Visual fields
D. Tear secretion
Moderately Difficult
Question No. 41
Keratometry measures the:
A. Thickness of the retina
B. Curvature of the cornea
C. Diameter of the pupil
D. Axial length of the eye
Question No. 42
Gonioscopy is primarily indicated in the evaluation of:
A. Cataract maturity
B. Anterior chamber angle
C. Retinal tears
D. Corneal ulcers
Question No. 43
Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) is particularly useful for diagnosing:
A. Orbital fractures
B. Macular diseases and retinal nerve fiber layer abnormalities
C. Lacrimal duct obstruction
D. Eyelid tumors
Question No. 44
Fluorescein angiography is mainly used to evaluate:
A. Eyelid lesions
B. Retinal and choroidal circulation
C. Corneal sensation
D. Lens opacity
Question No. 45
B-scan ultrasonography is especially valuable when:
A. The media are opaque and fundus visualization is impossible
B. Measuring tear production
C. Diagnosing conjunctivitis
D. Measuring corneal curvature
Question No. 46
The most appropriate immediate irrigation solution for chemical eye injury is:
A. Concentrated saline only
B. Running clean water or normal saline
C. Alcohol
D. Hydrogen peroxide
Question No. 47
A patient with acute angle-closure glaucoma typically presents with:
A. Painless gradual vision loss
B. Severe eye pain, halos around lights, nausea, and vomiting
C. Mild itching only
D. Diplopia without pain
Question No. 48
The first step in the management of a corneal foreign body is:
A. Immediate topical steroid administration
B. Careful examination and removal under aseptic conditions after topical anesthesia when appropriate
C. Cataract surgery
D. Vitrectomy
Question No. 49
Orbital cellulitis most commonly develops as a complication of:
A. Otitis externa
B. Sinus infection, especially ethmoid sinusitis
C. Migraine
D. Cataract
Question No. 50
Endophthalmitis is defined as:
A. Inflammation confined to the conjunctiva
B. Severe infection involving the intraocular tissues and fluids
C. Inflammation of the eyelids only
D. Infection of the lacrimal gland only
Question No. 51
The first-line topical antibiotic for uncomplicated bacterial conjunctivitis is commonly:
A. Timolol
B. Moxifloxacin
C. Prednisolone acetate
D. Pilocarpine
Question No. 52
Cycloplegic drugs are primarily used to:
A. Reduce intraocular pressure
B. Dilate the pupil and paralyze accommodation
C. Increase tear production
D. Treat fungal keratitis
Question No. 53
Pilocarpine belongs to which class of ophthalmic drugs?
A. Mydriatic
B. Miotic
C. Corticosteroid
D. Antihistamine
Question No. 54
The most common local adverse effect of prolonged topical corticosteroid use is:
A. Cataract and increased intraocular pressure
B. Corneal flattening
C. Increased tear secretion
D. Retinal pigmentation
Question No. 55
Artificial tears are mainly indicated for:
A. Acute glaucoma
B. Dry eye syndrome
C. Retinal detachment
D. Optic neuritis
Question No. 56
Which antiviral drug is commonly used in herpes simplex keratitis?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Acyclovir
C. Fluconazole
D. Timolol
Question No. 57
A dendritic corneal ulcer is characteristic of infection with:
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Candida albicans
Question No. 58
The definitive treatment for visually significant cataract is:
A. Topical steroids
B. Laser photocoagulation
C. Cataract extraction with intraocular lens implantation
D. Topical antibiotics
Question No. 59
The most commonly performed modern cataract surgery is:
A. Intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE)
B. Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE)
C. Phacoemulsification
D. Radial keratotomy
Question No. 60
Trabeculectomy is a surgical procedure performed primarily for:
A. Corneal transplantation
B. Glaucoma management
C. Retinal detachment repair
D. Eyelid reconstruction
Difficult
Question No. 61
The most common indication for penetrating keratoplasty is:
A. Retinal vein occlusion
B. Corneal opacity affecting vision
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Optic atrophy
Question No. 62
Vitrectomy is primarily performed to treat diseases involving the:
A. Cornea
B. Vitreous cavity and retina
C. Eyelids
D. Lacrimal gland
Question No. 63
Pan-retinal laser photocoagulation is the treatment of choice for:
A. Dry age-related macular degeneration
B. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Cataract
D. Primary pterygium
Question No. 64
The principal purpose of postoperative topical corticosteroids after cataract surgery is to:
A. Dissolve the intraocular lens
B. Reduce postoperative inflammation
C. Increase aqueous humor production
D. Prevent refractive error
Question No. 65
Leukocoria in a child should raise suspicion of:
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Dry eye syndrome
C. Acute conjunctivitis
D. Chalazion
Question No. 66
The most common intraocular malignant tumor in children is:
A. Melanoma
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Hemangioma
D. Astrocytoma
Question No. 67
Papilledema is caused by:
A. Increased intraocular pressure
B. Increased intracranial pressure
C. Cataract formation
D. Corneal edema
Question No. 68
Optic neuritis is strongly associated with:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Cataract
D. Hypertension
Question No. 69
The characteristic fundus appearance in central retinal artery occlusion is:
A. Cherry-red spot at the macula
B. Hard exudates only
C. Flame-shaped hemorrhages only
D. Cotton wool spots only
Question No. 70
The most important risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma is:
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Raised intraocular pressure
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Vitamin C deficiency
Question No. 71
A positive Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (Marcus Gunn pupil) indicates dysfunction of the:
A. Iris sphincter muscle
B. Retina or optic nerve of the affected eye
C. Ciliary body
D. Lens capsule
Question No. 72
The earliest clinically detectable diabetic retinopathy lesion is:
A. Neovascularization
B. Microaneurysm
C. Fibrous proliferation
D. Retinal detachment
Question No. 73
Which ocular disorder is most strongly associated with HLA-B27 positivity?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Cataract
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Macular degeneration
Question No. 74
The preferred investigation for diagnosing an occult retinal detachment when the ocular media are opaque is:
A. Gonioscopy
B. B-scan ultrasonography
C. Keratometry
D. Schirmer’s test
Question No. 75
A patient with painful ophthalmoplegia, proptosis, fever, and reduced vision should be suspected of having:
A. Hordeolum
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Dry eye syndrome
D. Pinguecula
Question No. 76
Which of the following is the most sight-threatening complication of microbial keratitis?
A. Dry eye syndrome
B. Corneal perforation
C. Pinguecula
D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Question No. 77
A patient develops severe pain, decreased vision, hypopyon, and lid edema two days after cataract surgery. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute conjunctivitis
B. Endophthalmitis
C. Episcleritis
D. Chalazion
Question No. 78
The most appropriate initial management of suspected endophthalmitis is:
A. Oral antihistamines only
B. Immediate intravitreal antibiotics after ophthalmic evaluation
C. Artificial tears
D. Pressure patching
Question No. 79
The most common organism causing postoperative acute endophthalmitis is:
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Candida albicans
Question No. 80
The best method for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum is:
A. Oral antibiotics to the mother after delivery
B. Routine neonatal ocular prophylaxis immediately after birth
C. Vitamin A supplementation at birth only
D. Eye patching for 24 hours
Complex
Question No. 81
A 68-year-old diabetic presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss. Fundoscopy reveals a pale retina with a cherry-red spot. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Optic neuritis
Question No. 82
A 60-year-old patient presents with severe ocular pain, halos around lights, headache, nausea, a mid-dilated fixed pupil, and markedly elevated intraocular pressure. The diagnosis is:
A. Acute anterior uveitis
B. Primary open-angle glaucoma
C. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
D. Corneal abrasion
Question No. 83
A young adult develops severe eye pain and photophobia after sleeping with contact lenses. Slit-lamp examination reveals a corneal ulcer. The most likely causative organism is:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Clostridium perfringens
Question No. 84
A child has unilateral leukocoria and strabismus. The priority diagnosis to exclude is:
A. Congenital glaucoma
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Congenital cataract only
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
Question No. 85
A patient with long-standing diabetes develops retinal neovascularization. The recommended definitive treatment is:
A. Cycloplegic eye drops
B. Pan-retinal laser photocoagulation
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Corneal transplantation
Question No. 86
A patient presents with flashes of light, numerous floaters, and a curtain descending over one eye. The next best management is:
A. Routine follow-up after one month
B. Urgent ophthalmology referral for retinal evaluation and treatment
C. Prescribe artificial tears only
D. Start topical corticosteroids
Question No. 87
A chemical alkali splash enters a worker’s eye. The first and most important step is:
A. Instill topical antibiotics first
B. Immediate copious irrigation before detailed examination
C. Apply an eye patch
D. Measure visual acuity before irrigation
Question No. 88
A patient with gradual painless peripheral visual field loss and optic disc cupping most likely has:
A. Primary open-angle glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Retinal detachment
D. Central retinal artery occlusion
Question No. 89
Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) is most valuable in monitoring:
A. Macular edema in diabetic retinopathy
B. Corneal foreign body
C. Acute conjunctivitis
D. Eyelid cellulitis
Question No. 90
The preferred surgical procedure for medically uncontrolled primary open-angle glaucoma is:
A. Vitrectomy
B. Trabeculectomy
C. Penetrating keratoplasty
D. Enucleation
Question No. 91
A patient has blurred near vision while distant vision remains normal. Which condition is most likely?
A. Myopia
B. Presbyopia
C. Retinal detachment
D. Acute glaucoma
Question No. 92
The most appropriate investigation for assessing retinal nerve fiber layer thickness in glaucoma is:
A. Schirmer’s test
B. OCT
C. Retinoscopy
D. Keratometry
Question No. 93
The most common cause of preventable childhood blindness due to nutritional deficiency is deficiency of:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B12
Question No. 94
Which investigation best demonstrates leakage from retinal neovascularization?
A. OCT only
B. Fluorescein angiography
C. Gonioscopy
D. Pachymetry
Question No. 95
A patient with painful red eye, consensual photophobia, ciliary flush, and cells in the anterior chamber most likely has:
A. Acute anterior uveitis
B. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis
C. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
D. Pinguecula
Question No. 96
A patient develops posterior capsule opacification months after cataract surgery. The treatment of choice is:
A. Repeat cataract extraction
B. Nd:YAG laser posterior capsulotomy
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Corneal transplantation
Question No. 97
Which ocular condition is considered an ophthalmic emergency requiring immediate reduction of intraocular pressure?
A. Dry eye syndrome
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Presbyopia
D. Pinguecula
Question No. 98
The strongest modifiable risk factor for progression of diabetic retinopathy is:
A. Blue light exposure
B. Poor glycemic control
C. Hair color
D. Near work
Question No. 99
A patient with giant cell arteritis develops sudden vision loss. Immediate treatment should include:
A. Oral antihistamines
B. High-dose systemic corticosteroids
C. Artificial tears
D. Topical antibiotics
Question No. 100
A 70-year-old patient presents with gradual central vision loss, drusen on fundoscopy, and distortion of straight lines (metamorphopsia). The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Primary open-angle glaucoma
B. Age-related macular degeneration
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Central retinal artery occlusion