Medical Officer & Lady Medical Officer Tests

Subject: General Pharmacology

Test 1

Questions 1–20 (Easy)

Question 1
Pharmacology is the study of:

A. Human anatomy
B. Drugs and their effects on living organisms
C. Microorganisms only
D. Surgical procedures

Question 2
Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves movement of a drug from the site of administration into the bloodstream?

A. Distribution
B. Absorption
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion

Question 3
The abbreviation ADME stands for:

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion
B. Administration, Dosage, Metabolism, Elimination
C. Absorption, Diffusion, Modification, Elimination
D. Administration, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

Question 4
The generic name of a drug is assigned by:

A. Manufacturer
B. Pharmacist
C. Approved nomenclature authority
D. Physician

Question 5
Which dosage form is intended for topical application?

A. Capsule
B. Tablet
C. Ointment
D. Syrup

Question 6
Drug metabolism mainly occurs in the:

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Heart
D. Lung

Question 7
The study of drug effects on the body is known as:

A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Toxicology

Question 8
Which receptor interaction produces the maximum biological response?

A. Antagonism
B. Agonism
C. Inverse agonism
D. Partial antagonism

Question 9
Which factor commonly alters drug response?

A. Age
B. Body weight
C. Renal function
D. All of the above

Question 10
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring is most useful for drugs with:

A. Wide therapeutic index
B. Narrow therapeutic index
C. Low potency
D. High lipid solubility

Question 11
Local anesthetics primarily block:

A. Potassium channels
B. Sodium channels
C. Calcium channels
D. Chloride channels

Question 12
Which antiseptic is commonly used for surgical skin preparation?

A. Chlorhexidine
B. Aspirin
C. Digoxin
D. Metformin

Question 13
Which drug belongs to the proton pump inhibitor group?

A. Omeprazole
B. Ranitidine
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. Sucralfate

Question 14
Which drug is commonly used as an antiemetic?

A. Ondansetron
B. Ibuprofen
C. Atenolol
D. Ciprofloxacin

Question 15
Which class of drugs lowers blood pressure by increasing urine output?

A. NSAIDs
B. Diuretics
C. Opioids
D. Antacids

Question 16
Furosemide belongs to which class?

A. Thiazide diuretic
B. Loop diuretic
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. Osmotic diuretic

Question 17
Atropine is obtained from:

A. Digitalis
B. Belladonna
C. Cinchona
D. Opium

Question 18
Morphine is classified as a:

A. Local anesthetic
B. Opioid analgesic
C. NSAID
D. Sedative

Question 19
Pilocarpine acts primarily as a:

A. Beta blocker
B. Cholinergic agonist
C. Alpha blocker
D. Anticholinergic

Question 20
Diazepam belongs to which drug group?

A. Benzodiazepines
B. Opioids
C. Antipsychotics
D. NSAIDs

---

Questions 21–40 (Moderate)

Question 21
The bioavailability of an intravenous drug is:

A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 90%
D. 100%

Question 22
Which phase of clinical trials evaluates efficacy in patients?

A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase IV
D. Preclinical phase

Question 23
Drug receptors are usually:

A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins

Question 24
First-pass metabolism mainly reduces the bioavailability of orally administered drugs through:

A. Skin metabolism
B. Hepatic metabolism
C. Pulmonary metabolism
D. Renal metabolism

Question 25
Which topical antimicrobial is commonly used for burns?

A. Silver sulfadiazine
B. Penicillin G
C. Gentamicin injection
D. Amoxicillin

Question 26
Metoclopramide primarily acts as:

A. Antacid
B. Prokinetic agent
C. Antihypertensive
D. Bronchodilator

Question 27
Loperamide is used in the treatment of:

A. Constipation
B. Diarrhea
C. Vomiting
D. Gastritis

Question 28
Lactulose is commonly prescribed for:

A. Hypertension
B. Constipation
C. Asthma
D. Arrhythmia

Question 29
Which drug is an ACE inhibitor?

A. Enalapril
B. Verapamil
C. Digoxin
D. Aspirin

Question 30
Nitroglycerin relieves angina primarily by:

A. Increasing heart rate
B. Venodilation
C. Blocking sodium channels
D. Increasing cardiac contractility

Question 31
Warfarin acts by inhibiting:

A. Platelet aggregation
B. Vitamin K-dependent clotting factor synthesis
C. Thrombin directly
D. Fibrinolysis

Question 32
Which drug irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase?

A. Aspirin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Heparin
D. Alteplase

Question 33
Hydrochlorothiazide commonly causes:

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia only
D. Hypernatremia

Question 34
Spironolactone is classified as a:

A. Loop diuretic
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Question 35
Quinine is primarily used for:

A. Tuberculosis
B. Malaria
C. Hypertension
D. Epilepsy

Question 36
Physostigmine inhibits:

A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Acetylcholinesterase
C. Monoamine oxidase
D. Carbonic anhydrase

Question 37
Propranolol is:

A. Alpha agonist
B. Non-selective beta blocker
C. Alpha blocker
D. Muscarinic antagonist

Question 38
Neostigmine is mainly indicated in:

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Asthma
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Depression

Question 39
Haloperidol is classified as:

A. Antidepressant
B. Antipsychotic
C. Anxiolytic
D. Anticonvulsant

Question 40
Levodopa is primarily indicated in:

A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Epilepsy
D. Migraine

---

Questions 41–60 (Moderately Difficult)

Question 41
Which antiepileptic drug commonly causes gingival hyperplasia?

A. Valproate
B. Phenytoin
C. Ethosuximide
D. Lamotrigine

Question 42
Fluoxetine belongs to which class?

A. TCA
B. SSRI
C. MAOI
D. SNRI

Question 43
Donepezil improves cognition by:

A. Blocking dopamine receptors
B. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
C. Activating GABA receptors
D. Blocking NMDA receptors

Question 44
Propofol is mainly used for:

A. Local anesthesia
B. General anesthesia induction
C. Chronic pain
D. Parkinsonism

Question 45
Which NSAID has a higher risk of gastric ulceration?

A. Aspirin
B. Celecoxib
C. Paracetamol
D. Tramadol

Question 46
Paracetamol overdose primarily damages the:

A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Kidney only
D. Heart

Question 47
Naloxone reverses toxicity due to:

A. Benzodiazepines
B. Opioids
C. Barbiturates
D. NSAIDs

Question 48
Amoxicillin belongs to:

A. Macrolides
B. Penicillins
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Aminoglycosides

Question 49
Ceftriaxone is a:

A. First-generation cephalosporin
B. Second-generation cephalosporin
C. Third-generation cephalosporin
D. Fourth-generation cephalosporin

Question 50
Gentamicin toxicity commonly includes:

A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Constipation

Question 51
Azithromycin belongs to:

A. Macrolides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Penicillins
D. Glycopeptides

Question 52
Doxycycline should generally be avoided during:

A. Childhood and pregnancy
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. Asthma

Question 53
Ciprofloxacin primarily inhibits:

A. DNA gyrase
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. Protein synthesis at 50S ribosome
D. Folic acid synthesis

Question 54
Trimethoprim inhibits:

A. Dihydrofolate reductase
B. DNA gyrase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Cell wall synthesis

Question 55
Isoniazid supplementation should include:

A. Vitamin C
B. Pyridoxine
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

Question 56
Acyclovir is primarily active against:

A. HSV infections
B. Influenza
C. HIV
D. Hepatitis C

Question 57
Fluconazole is mainly used against:

A. Viral infections
B. Fungal infections
C. Protozoal infections
D. Helminths

Question 58
Albendazole is effective against:

A. Roundworms
B. Influenza virus
C. Tuberculosis
D. Candida

Question 59
The primary aim of antimicrobial stewardship is:

A. Increase antibiotic use
B. Reduce antimicrobial resistance
C. Increase prescriptions
D. Eliminate vaccinations

Question 60
Vitamin K deficiency mainly causes:

A. Blindness
B. Bleeding tendency
C. Neuropathy
D. Rickets

---

Questions 61–80 (Difficult)

Question 61
Hypervitaminosis A commonly presents with:

A. Night blindness
B. Raised intracranial pressure and hepatotoxicity
C. Scurvy
D. Megaloblastic anemia

Question 62
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes:

A. Pernicious anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Polycythemia

Question 63
Type A adverse drug reactions are:

A. Unpredictable
B. Dose dependent and predictable
C. Genetic only
D. Allergic only

Question 64
Anaphylaxis following penicillin administration is classified as:

A. Type A ADR
B. Type B ADR
C. Type C ADR
D. Type D ADR

Question 65
Pharmacovigilance primarily focuses on:

A. Drug manufacturing only
B. Detection and prevention of ADRs
C. Drug marketing only
D. Drug pricing

Question 66
Which drug is absolutely contraindicated during pregnancy because of fetal teeth discoloration?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Doxycycline
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Azithromycin

Question 67
The preferred analgesic during pregnancy is generally:

A. Ibuprofen
B. Paracetamol
C. Diclofenac
D. Aspirin

Question 68
Beers Criteria are mainly applied in:

A. Pediatrics
B. Geriatrics
C. Pregnancy
D. Neonates

Question 69
Which opioid has the highest risk of respiratory depression?

A. Morphine
B. Paracetamol
C. Aspirin
D. Diclofenac

Question 70
Heparin primarily enhances the action of:

A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin III
C. Protein S
D. Plasminogen

Question 71
Digoxin toxicity is more likely in:

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia only

Question 72
Acetazolamide is primarily useful in:

A. Glaucoma
B. Hypertension only
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Arrhythmia

Question 73
Mannitol is contraindicated in:

A. Cerebral edema due to traumatic brain injury
B. Pulmonary edema from heart failure
C. Acute glaucoma
D. Raised intracranial pressure before surgery

Question 74
Vincristine mainly interferes with:

A. DNA replication
B. Microtubule formation
C. RNA synthesis
D. Cell membrane permeability

Question 75
Ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in:

A. Migraine prophylaxis with vascular disease
B. Vitamin deficiency
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Anemia

Question 76
Prazosin primarily blocks:

A. Alpha-1 receptors
B. Alpha-2 receptors
C. Beta-1 receptors
D. Beta-2 receptors

Question 77
Phenylephrine is a selective:

A. Alpha-1 agonist
B. Beta-1 agonist
C. Beta-2 agonist
D. Dopamine agonist

Question 78
Atropine poisoning commonly causes:

A. Miosis
B. Dry mouth and mydriasis
C. Bradycardia
D. Excessive salivation

Question 79
The antidote for organophosphate poisoning includes:

A. Naloxone
B. Atropine with pralidoxime
C. Flumazenil
D. Vitamin K

Question 80
Flumazenil is used to reverse:

A. Opioid overdose
B. Benzodiazepine overdose
C. Digoxin toxicity
D. Methanol poisoning

---

Questions 81–100 (Complex)

Question 81
A patient develops cough after initiation of enalapril. The most appropriate alternative is:

A. Lisinopril
B. Losartan
C. Ramipril
D. Captopril

Question 82
A patient receiving warfarin presents with INR of 8 without major bleeding. The preferred antidote is:

A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine

Question 83
A diabetic patient with heart failure requires a diuretic for pulmonary edema. Which drug is preferred?

A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone alone
D. Acetazolamide

Question 84
A patient develops tinnitus after receiving an antimicrobial. Which drug is most likely responsible?

A. Gentamicin
B. Azithromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Ceftriaxone

Question 85
The drug of choice for acute anaphylaxis is:

A. Atropine
B. Epinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Hydrocortisone

Question 86
The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is:

A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine

Question 87
A patient receiving morphine becomes unconscious with pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression. Immediate treatment is:

A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Physostigmine

Question 88
Which antihypertensive is contraindicated during pregnancy?

A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. Enalapril
D. Nifedipine

Question 89
The most appropriate initial drug for status epilepticus is:

A. Diazepam
B. Carbamazepine
C. Ethosuximide
D. Gabapentin

Question 90
A patient with glaucoma should generally avoid:

A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine eye drops
C. Timolol eye drops
D. Latanoprost

Question 91
The drug of choice for acute gout attack is:

A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine or NSAIDs
C. Probenecid
D. Febuxostat

Question 92
Which antimicrobial is associated with pseudomembranous colitis?

A. Clindamycin
B. Penicillin V
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Rifampicin

Question 93
A patient develops severe hypoglycemia after receiving propranolol. Beta-blockers may mask:

A. Fever
B. Tachycardia of hypoglycemia
C. Jaundice
D. Hypertension

Question 94
The preferred thrombolytic agent in acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction is:

A. Alteplase
B. Aspirin
C. Warfarin
D. Enoxaparin

Question 95
A patient with tuberculosis develops optic neuritis. Which drug is responsible?

A. Ethambutol
B. Rifampicin
C. Isoniazid
D. Pyrazinamide

Question 96
The most common electrolyte abnormality with loop diuretics is:

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia

Question 97
Which drug should be monitored by measuring trough serum concentrations?

A. Gentamicin
B. Paracetamol
C. Omeprazole
D. Aspirin

Question 98
A patient receiving spironolactone is at greatest risk of:

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia

Question 99
The best indicator of rational antimicrobial prescribing is:

A. Broadest spectrum possible
B. Culture-guided therapy whenever feasible
C. Longest duration for every patient
D. Combination antibiotics in all infections

Question 100
A Medical Officer should prescribe medicines according to essential medicine principles primarily to:

A. Increase drug costs
B. Promote safe, effective, evidence-based, and economical treatment
C. Limit patient access to medicines
D. Reduce physician workload